Of God's Eternal Decree
Westminster Confession of Faith
Chapter III
Of God's Eternal Decree
I. God from all eternity, did, by the most wise and holy counsel of His own will, freely, and unchangeably ordain whatsoever comes to pass;
From Chapter I, Section VI: “The whole counsel of God concerning all things necessary for His own glory, man's salvation, faith and life, is either expressly set down in Scripture, or by good and necessary consequence may be deduced from Scripture.”
I assume that the assertion in Chapter III, Section I quoted above is believed by the authors of the WCF to be “either expressly set down in Scripture, or by good and necessary consequence [deducible] from Scripture.”
The proof texts offered in support of this assertion are:
EPH 1:11 In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will.
ROM 11:33 O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! how unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways past finding out!
HEB 6:17 Wherein God, willing more abundantly to shew unto the heirs of promise the immutability of his counsel, confirmed it by an oath.
ROM 9:15 For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion. 18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.
Since my focus here is on the assertion that God ordains “whatsoever comes to pass”, I will address the first proof text only. I take “ordain” to mean to decree; to order or command; to determine.
Ephesians 1:11 Paul tells the Ephesians, writing in a particular context, that God works all things after the counsel (Gr. boule) of his own will (Gr. thelema). The authors of the WCF take this to mean that God ordains “whatsoever comes to pass”. They assign great breadth of meaning to “all things” in v. 11. Would they assign as great a breadth of meaning to the “all things” in verse 10?
Luke tells us (7:30), that “the Pharisees and the lawyers rejected the purpose (Gr. boule) of God for themselves, not having been baptized by [John].” How could this be if what the WCF says is true? And Jesus says, in Matthew 18:14, “So it is not the will (Gr. thelema) of my Father who is in heaven that one of these little ones should perish.” The authors of the WCF claim that God has from eternity unchangeably ordained everything that comes to pass, and they also claim (later in this chapter of the WCF) that God has ordained some to everlasting death. But Jesus says it is not the Father’s will that any perish. What is one to make of this?
Jesus declares, “O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, the city that kills the prophets and stones those who are sent to it! How often would I have gathered your children together as a hen gathers her brood under her wings, and you would not!” (Matthew 23:37). The WCF asserts that God ordained everything that comes to pass. It follows that God ordained that Jerusalem kill the prophets, stone those who are sent to it, be unwilling to be gathered, and not be gathered. How does this square with Jesus’ declaration? This seems to pit the Son against the Father. I see other instances of this kind of "pitting the Son against the Father" in Mark 1:44-45 and Mark 6:1-6.
The LORD declares to His people in Isaiah 54:15, “If anyone stirs up strife, it is not from me….” But the authors of the WCF say that it is from God. Who is right?
And in Isaiah 5:1-4, the LORD does all He can for his vineyard, looking for grapes. But the vineyard yields wild, or worthless, grapes. If God unchangeably ordained from eternity the “wild grapes”, what does it mean that He looked for good grapes?
I don’t believe that the WCF assertion that God from all eternity unchangeably ordained whatsoever comes to pass is either “expressly set down in Scripture, or by good and necessary consequence [deducible] from Scripture”. I believe the WCF authors made this assertion under the influence of extrabiblical philosophy—philosophy which is in error.
Chapter III
Of God's Eternal Decree
I. God from all eternity, did, by the most wise and holy counsel of His own will, freely, and unchangeably ordain whatsoever comes to pass;
From Chapter I, Section VI: “The whole counsel of God concerning all things necessary for His own glory, man's salvation, faith and life, is either expressly set down in Scripture, or by good and necessary consequence may be deduced from Scripture.”
I assume that the assertion in Chapter III, Section I quoted above is believed by the authors of the WCF to be “either expressly set down in Scripture, or by good and necessary consequence [deducible] from Scripture.”
The proof texts offered in support of this assertion are:
EPH 1:11 In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will.
ROM 11:33 O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! how unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways past finding out!
HEB 6:17 Wherein God, willing more abundantly to shew unto the heirs of promise the immutability of his counsel, confirmed it by an oath.
ROM 9:15 For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion. 18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.
Since my focus here is on the assertion that God ordains “whatsoever comes to pass”, I will address the first proof text only. I take “ordain” to mean to decree; to order or command; to determine.
Ephesians 1:11 Paul tells the Ephesians, writing in a particular context, that God works all things after the counsel (Gr. boule) of his own will (Gr. thelema). The authors of the WCF take this to mean that God ordains “whatsoever comes to pass”. They assign great breadth of meaning to “all things” in v. 11. Would they assign as great a breadth of meaning to the “all things” in verse 10?
Luke tells us (7:30), that “the Pharisees and the lawyers rejected the purpose (Gr. boule) of God for themselves, not having been baptized by [John].” How could this be if what the WCF says is true? And Jesus says, in Matthew 18:14, “So it is not the will (Gr. thelema) of my Father who is in heaven that one of these little ones should perish.” The authors of the WCF claim that God has from eternity unchangeably ordained everything that comes to pass, and they also claim (later in this chapter of the WCF) that God has ordained some to everlasting death. But Jesus says it is not the Father’s will that any perish. What is one to make of this?
Jesus declares, “O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, the city that kills the prophets and stones those who are sent to it! How often would I have gathered your children together as a hen gathers her brood under her wings, and you would not!” (Matthew 23:37). The WCF asserts that God ordained everything that comes to pass. It follows that God ordained that Jerusalem kill the prophets, stone those who are sent to it, be unwilling to be gathered, and not be gathered. How does this square with Jesus’ declaration? This seems to pit the Son against the Father. I see other instances of this kind of "pitting the Son against the Father" in Mark 1:44-45 and Mark 6:1-6.
The LORD declares to His people in Isaiah 54:15, “If anyone stirs up strife, it is not from me….” But the authors of the WCF say that it is from God. Who is right?
And in Isaiah 5:1-4, the LORD does all He can for his vineyard, looking for grapes. But the vineyard yields wild, or worthless, grapes. If God unchangeably ordained from eternity the “wild grapes”, what does it mean that He looked for good grapes?
I don’t believe that the WCF assertion that God from all eternity unchangeably ordained whatsoever comes to pass is either “expressly set down in Scripture, or by good and necessary consequence [deducible] from Scripture”. I believe the WCF authors made this assertion under the influence of extrabiblical philosophy—philosophy which is in error.
posted by John Barry at 11:31 AM
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