Total Inability in the WCF (Part 3)

Chapter IX

III. Man, by his fall into a state of sin, hath wholly lost all ability of will to any spiritual good accompanying salvation:(d) so as, a natural man, being altogether averse from that good,(e) and dead in sin,(f) is not able, by his own strength, to convert himself, or to prepare himself thereunto.(g)

(d) Rom. 5:6; Rom 8:7; John 15:5.
(e) Rom. 3:10, 12.
(f) Eph. 2:1, 5; Col. 2:13.
(g) John 6:44, 65; Eph. 2:2, 3, 4, 5; I Cor. 2:14; Titus 3:3, 4, 5.

“and dead in sin,”

The proof texts cited for this phrase are:

Ephesians 2:1 And you he made alive, when you were dead through the trespasses and sins 2 in which you once walked, following the course of this world, following the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that is now at work in the sons of disobedience-

Ephesians 2:4 But God, who is rich in mercy, out of the great love with which he loved us, 5 even when we were dead through our trespasses, made us alive together with Christ (by grace you have been saved),

Colossians 2:13 And you, who were dead in trespasses and the uncircumcision of your flesh, God made alive together with him, having forgiven us all our trespasses,


Comments:

What does “dead in sin”, or “dead through trespasses and sins” mean? The Confession implies that it means that man has “wholly lost all ability of will to any spiritual good accompanying salvation”, and that man is unable, “by his own strength, to convert himself, or to prepare himself unto conversion.” But Paul connects “dead in sin” with “following the course of this world”, “following the prince of the power of the air”, living in the passions of the flesh, following the desires of body and mind, yielding the members to sin as instruments of wickedness. I don’t see any mention of “inability of will” either in these texts or in their contexts.

But some say, “Dead means dead. A dead man is unable to exercise his will.” As I have posted earlier, the metaphor of deadness is not the only one used in the Scripture in connection with the condition of the unregenerate. The metaphor of slavery is used (Romans 6), and that of weakness (Romans 5:6). Slave means slave, and slaves are not dead. Weak means weak, and the weak are not dead. What do those who give “dead” such force of meaning do with these other metaphors? Do they give them equal force?

In other texts, such as Romans 6:16, 21, 23, the relation that death bears to sin is prospective. In other words, sin leads to or bears fruit for death. And in Ephesians 5:14 and Revelation 3:2, the “dead” are told to arise or awake. It doesn’t seem that "dead" always means "dead" in the way that some assert.

Rather than “inability of will”, which is nowhere in the context of the above verses, I believe “dead in sin” is analogous to living in the passions of the flesh, following the course of this world, etc. Paul speaks of sin "springing to life" and "killing" him. It is in this state of "death" that he presumably is able to "will what is right", although he can't do it.

The metaphor could also refer to being “dead” in a judicial sense—that is, under a sentence of death, or condemnation. I believe this metaphor ought to be interpreted in a manner consistent with other metaphors and analogies pertaining to the unregenerate. And in light of the many texts where a command is given, and ability to obey is assumed, I don’t believe the Confession’s association of “dead in sin” with “inability of will” is warranted.