Total Inability in the WCF (Part 2)
For ease of reference, I cite the pertinent section of the WCF again:
Chapter IX
III. Man, by his fall into a state of sin, hath wholly lost all ability of will to any spiritual good accompanying salvation:(d) so as, a natural man, being altogether averse from that good,(e) and dead in sin,(f) is not able, by his own strength, to convert himself, or to prepare himself thereunto.(g)
(d) Rom. 5:6; Rom 8:7; John 15:5.
(e) Rom. 3:10, 12.
(f) Eph. 2:1, 5; Col. 2:13.
(g) John 6:44, 65; Eph. 2:2, 3, 4, 5; I Cor. 2:14; Titus 3:3, 4, 5.
“…so as a natural man, being altogether averse from that good,”
The proof texts cited for this phrase are:
Romans 3:10 as it is written: "None is righteous, no, not one;
Romans 3:12 All have turned aside, together they have gone wrong; no one does good, not even one."
Comments:
Paul is citing from Psalm 14 here to support his statement that all men, both Jews and Greeks, are under the power of sin. I agree that men are generally “altogether averse from the good accompanying salvation” as the Confession states. However, I don’t know why the term “a natural man” is inserted. Are the authors inferring a connection between a “natural man” and “being altogether averse from that good”? I don’t find “natural man” in the Scriptures. But I do find Gentiles doing by nature what the law requires. (Rom. 2:14). Perhaps by “a natural man” the authors of the WCF mean a man whose mind is set on the flesh.
Chapter IX
III. Man, by his fall into a state of sin, hath wholly lost all ability of will to any spiritual good accompanying salvation:(d) so as, a natural man, being altogether averse from that good,(e) and dead in sin,(f) is not able, by his own strength, to convert himself, or to prepare himself thereunto.(g)
(d) Rom. 5:6; Rom 8:7; John 15:5.
(e) Rom. 3:10, 12.
(f) Eph. 2:1, 5; Col. 2:13.
(g) John 6:44, 65; Eph. 2:2, 3, 4, 5; I Cor. 2:14; Titus 3:3, 4, 5.
“…so as a natural man, being altogether averse from that good,”
The proof texts cited for this phrase are:
Romans 3:10 as it is written: "None is righteous, no, not one;
Romans 3:12 All have turned aside, together they have gone wrong; no one does good, not even one."
Comments:
Paul is citing from Psalm 14 here to support his statement that all men, both Jews and Greeks, are under the power of sin. I agree that men are generally “altogether averse from the good accompanying salvation” as the Confession states. However, I don’t know why the term “a natural man” is inserted. Are the authors inferring a connection between a “natural man” and “being altogether averse from that good”? I don’t find “natural man” in the Scriptures. But I do find Gentiles doing by nature what the law requires. (Rom. 2:14). Perhaps by “a natural man” the authors of the WCF mean a man whose mind is set on the flesh.
posted by John Barry at 10:59 PM
2 Comments:
That could be, Anna, but I don't see "natural" or "nature" used in the Scriptures that way.
Touche! 1 Cor 2:14 is even one of the proof texts used for this Section of the WCF. Jude 1:19 also uses the word "natural" in a similar way.
I didn't read as thoroughly as I ought to have before posting. Having looked further, I have no problem with the language of the Confession used in this phrase.
Thank you for pointing this out, Anna.
Post a Comment
<< Home